Hi not sure if this is the place to ask, but I wanted to give it a try.
There was a hypothetical question brought up by the professor in my genetics class, and I was wondering if anyone had any ideas on this because I found it interesting but also frustrating.
So, the scenario is that you have eye color controlled by gene Z, with Z representing brown eyes and z representing red eyes. When crossing a true breeding brown eyed female and a red eyed male, you get a F1 generation of all brown eyed males and then mostly brown eyed females, but around 5% of the females are heterochromatic (showing one brown and one red eye).
In this scenario, would there be any possible explanations to only a small percentage of females having heterochromia without it being related to X-linkage/X-chromosome inactivation?
After thinking about it for a while, I came up with possibly sex-limited double dominant epistasis (due to the apparent 15:1 ratio in female progeny). But, this wouldn't make sense due to the true breeding parentage, with the 15:1 ratio coming about from double heterochromatic parents. Another possible solution could be that there is a gene for heterochromia that is separate from the eye color gene and also does not relate to epistasis at all, but I'm not sure how well that holds up.
Sorry if this was a lot of information. But I want to see if anyone had any other ideas because I'm interested to see what people think. #animals source